Affiliate Marketing VAT Rules

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VAT rules for affiliate marketing is absolutely ridicolous and I really need some guidance on this.

I'm based in the EU, working as an affiliate for a company that is based in the US, but seems to have offices all over Europe. The clients I refer are mainly from Europe.

The law regarding VAT for affiliates stipulates that I should pay NO value added tax if the company that benefits from my sales is located outside of Europe. However, since said company has offices/hqs all over the EU I'm wondering how this will affect things, if at all.

Thanks so much in advance, I can't find an answer for this anywhere.
 
You need to speak to an accountant. This is a complex issue and one that needs to be answered by a professional.
 
If you are a business providing affiliate marketing services to another European registered company that has a VAT number, there is no change. Since both are companies and both have a VAT number, there is no VAT charged in this B2B transaction.
 
If you are a business providing affiliate marketing services to another European registered company that has a VAT number, there is no change. Since both are companies and both have a VAT number, there is no VAT charged in this B2B transaction.
Gotcha! So I'd only get charged as if I did it as a non-biz operator?
 
Whether you charge VAT or not depends on where your customer is, and whether you are VAT registered.

It doesn't depend on whether your customer is VAT registered.

If your customer is outside the EU then you don't charge VAT. If it is in the EU and you're in the EU and you're VAT registered then you do.

The first thing to ascertain is whether you are already VAT registered. If you haven't registered then you don't charge VAT.

Do you have a VAT number?
 
Whether you charge VAT or not depends on where your customer is, and whether you are VAT registered.

It doesn't depend on whether your customer is VAT registered.

If your customer is outside the EU then you don't charge VAT. If it is in the EU and you're in the EU and you're VAT registered then you do.

The first thing to ascertain is whether you are already VAT registered. If you haven't registered then you don't charge VAT.

Do you have a VAT number?

I am, but isn't it up to the company Im working with to charge said VAT in thid case?
 
I am, but isn't it up to the company Im working with to charge said VAT in thid case?
If you're the service provider (the referrer), charging VAT (if appropriate) is your responsibility.

Usually most service providers (such as web designers) would generate invoices and send them to the client company. With affiliates relationships, its usually the affiliate software that generates these for the affiliate. But technically, its still the affiliate who should be invoicing the company.

The next question is where is the company located? If the address on the invoice they generate for you is in the US, you don't need to charge VAT.

It doesn't matter if the company has EU offices. What matters is whether you're working for an EU business or not.

If you want to PM me details about who you're working for, I'll have a proper look into it.
 
if you are a business providing affiliate marketing services to another European registered company that has a VAT number, there is no change. Since both are companies and both have a VAT number, there is no VAT charged in this B2B transaction.

The major doubt arises when you have companies or freelancers who are below the threshold for VAT registration in countries like the UK, so they don’t have a VAT number. If you are providing affiliate services to these companies or freelancers, you will need to charge VAT to them.

This can be quite annoying as many affiliate systems automatically pay affiliates every month, and they don’t have functionality for MOSS VAT built-in. So what you will need to do is inform the company that you will be issuing a monthly invoice to them with the VAT added on top of the referral income they owe you. They should not have any problem with this arrangement since that is what the law necessitates. If you don’t invoice them and obtain payment, you will be liable to pay the VAT yourself, which is not a good situation.

Now the second question relates to what VAT rate to use when charging advertisers. The answer is that you should use the VAT rate of the country where the advertiser is based. Hence we are using the MOSS VAT rules because affiliate income is classified as an automated digital service.

Hence if you are a Spanish affiliate for a UK-based product seller, and this UK seller does not have a VAT number, you need to charge him UK VAT at the end of the month when you obtain your affiliate payout. Then, you will need to declare the amount collected on your MOSS statement.
 
If you're the service provider (the referrer), charging VAT (if appropriate) is your responsibility.

Usually most service providers (such as web designers) would generate invoices and send them to the client company. With affiliates relationships, its usually the affiliate software that generates these for the affiliate. But technically, its still the affiliate who should be invoicing the company.

The next question is where is the company located? If the address on the invoice they generate for you is in the US, you don't need to charge VAT.

It doesn't matter if the company has EU offices. What matters is whether you're working for an EU business or not.

If you want to PM me details about who you're working for, I'll have a proper look into it.
The invoice is indeed US and their head office is in USA, which is where they were founded.
 
The invoice is indeed US and their head office is in USA, which is where they were founded.

If your customer is a business outside the EU, then your charges should be "outside the scope of VAT" i.e. you shouldn't charge VAT.

I'd double check this with a local accountant. My knowledge is limited to the UK. But VAT is harmonised across the EU, making all rules roughly the same.
 
This can be quite annoying as many affiliate systems automatically pay affiliates every month, and they don’t have functionality for MOSS VAT built-in. So what you will need to do is inform the company that you will be issuing a monthly invoice to them with the VAT added on top of the referral income they owe you. They should not have any problem with this arrangement since that is what the law necessitates. If you don’t invoice them and obtain payment, you will be liable to pay the VAT yourself, which is not a good situation.

God damn it. I'm in that situation. Do I need to contact ClickBank and demand they pay me an extra £20k for the VAT HMRC has charged me or what? Would that even work?!
 
Most people don't really under VAT, especially cross-border VAT. I'll answer the questions here and also explain how it works and link to relevant legislation or government guidelines where appropriate.


VAT rules for affiliate marketing is absolutely ridicolous and I really need some guidance on this.

I'm based in the EU, working as an affiliate for a company that is based in the US, but seems to have offices all over Europe. The clients I refer are mainly from Europe.

The law regarding VAT for affiliates stipulates that I should pay NO value added tax if the company that benefits from my sales is located outside of Europe. However, since said company has offices/hqs all over the EU I'm wondering how this will affect things, if at all.

Thanks so much in advance, I can't find an answer for this anywhere.

It helps if you specify the country you are in btw.

For this it's simple. Who pays you? The affiliate network/company. What company/address have they told you to invoice them to.

For their part, they actually need nothing from you in this case.

An affiliate payment is by very definition ONLY b2b. It is NOT a consumer purchase, because you have done business to get paid.

They don't even need your VAT number. Everything is on you.

The revere charge mechanism applies. This means 1 of 2 things. (You said you're VAT registered, so 1 applies to you)

1) You are VAT registered, so you charge yourself VAT and claim it back at the same time. You're charging output VAT to yourself, and claiming back input VAT. It's zero-rated. Nothing to pay. You're only recording on your VAT return, which is going to be adding to the box for vat-able sales and adding to the box for vat-able purchases at your country's main rate.

2) You are NOT VAT registered. So you do nothing. Nada. Place of supply rules. You are a business, but not VAT registered, which means you are responsible for dealing with the VAT in your country. However, you are not VAT registered, so you cannot charge anyone VAT, including yourself.

BUT, here's the big but. This increases your sales for the VAT registration threshold!

Also worth noting, and most don't realise this. EVERY service you purchase online from a non-EU country needs to be accounted for under reverse charge and it goes towards your VAT registration threshold.

This means, if you buy some SEO services from Jim over in NYC from his LLC registered in Delaware for $5000, then you account for this in your company books as VAT-able at 20% under the reverse charge expenses mechanism. Ie, it either increases your sales towards the threshold by $5k, because you are selling the service to yourself for $5k, paying VAT, and claiming back VAT at the same time.


Gotcha! So I'd only get charged as if I did it as a non-biz operator?

Yes, B2C, but that's impossible with affiliate marketing. By very definition you are acting as a business.

I am, but isn't it up to the company Im working with to charge said VAT in thid case?

Charge you VAT for what? They're paying you. You aren't paying them.


if you are a business providing affiliate marketing services to another European registered company that has a VAT number, there is no change. Since both are companies and both have a VAT number, there is no VAT charged in this B2B transaction.

The major doubt arises when you have companies or freelancers who are below the threshold for VAT registration in countries like the UK, so they don’t have a VAT number. If you are providing affiliate services to these companies or freelancers, you will need to charge VAT to them.

This can be quite annoying as many affiliate systems automatically pay affiliates every month, and they don’t have functionality for MOSS VAT built-in. So what you will need to do is inform the company that you will be issuing a monthly invoice to them with the VAT added on top of the referral income they owe you. They should not have any problem with this arrangement since that is what the law necessitates. If you don’t invoice them and obtain payment, you will be liable to pay the VAT yourself, which is not a good situation.

Now the second question relates to what VAT rate to use when charging advertisers. The answer is that you should use the VAT rate of the country where the advertiser is based. Hence we are using the MOSS VAT rules because affiliate income is classified as an automated digital service.

Hence if you are a Spanish affiliate for a UK-based product seller, and this UK seller does not have a VAT number, you need to charge him UK VAT at the end of the month when you obtain your affiliate payout. Then, you will need to declare the amount collected on your MOSS statement.

No this is wrong. You don't have to charge VAT to them. This is where the mis-understanding comes in from many.

Please see the following document:

https://ec.europa.eu/taxation_custo...t_works/telecom/explanatory_notes_2015_en.pdf

Section 5: STATUS OF CUSTOMER NOT COMMUNICATING HIS VAT IDENTIFICATION NUMBER (ARTICLE 18)

This is what it says: It says that it's at the supplier's discretion to regard the customer as a business if they don't provide a VAT number. This means that if they do provide one, the supplier MUST consider them a business, however, if they do not, the supplier can STILL at his or her discretion consider them a business.

First, definition of taxable person according to ec.europa.eu

The definition of a taxable person in the VAT Directive is any person or body “who, independently, carries out in any place any economic activity, whatever the purpose or results”.

It's not defined as someone who is VAT registered, or who pays VAT. There are businesses that don't have VAT numbers, because they only make VAT exempt supplies.


Now let's look at what the explanatory notes of the VAT implementation regulation states.

"Paragraph 1 tells the supplier when he can regard an EU customer as a taxable person. That is the case when the customer communicates his VAT identification number, or shows that he is in the process of registering for VAT."

You can absolutely without recourse consider the person(in law a person means either an individual or company) taxable, provided you have verified their VAT number with VIES and have given your own VAT number so you can receive a consultation number back, which is your proof you did the check.

Then it goes on to say

"Where no VAT identification number has been communicated, the first subparagraph of paragraph 2 tells the supplier that the customer can be regarded as a non-taxable person but only if there is no information to the contrary."

So, you can consider them non-taxable, ie, not a business, BUT ONLY IF there is no information to the contrary that shows they are a business.

Then it goes on to say

"Article 18 helps the supplier to identify the status of the customer but the provision does not change it. It is important to remember that any person who independently carries out in any place any economic activity, whatever the purpose or results of that activity, must be regarded as a taxable person. To be a taxable person, registration is not required. In other words the fact that a taxable person does not have a VAT identification number does not change his status."


Aha. This is from the ACTUAL EU VAT legislation.


Here's an example of a company who do this in practice. No other than Google.

When you sign up for Google Suite and say you are a business customer, then they will NOT charge you VAT. They will send you an invoice with 0% VAT being added and a note saying "Services subject to the reverse charge - VAT to be accounted for by the recipient as per Article 196 of Council Directive 2006/112/EC"

See: https://support.google.com/a/answer/1231283?hl=en

They state it here too and say you are responsible for self-assessing your own VAT and paying yourself in your own local member state.


This all seems simple enough, right? Why aren't every company doing this?

Because the liability lies with the supplier if the customer doesn't provide a VAT number or proof of a pending registration.

There's various things here beyond tax too, like, different rights for consumers than businesses. Some companies won't sell to consumers.

If you accept customer X is a business, send him a reverse charge invoice and he turns out to be a consumer, then you're liable.

But come on. Let's get real. Let's look at case law. Can someone find me a single case where the EU has taken anyone to court over VAT? No. I can't even find any cases of tax authorities in member states going after businesses in other member states for unclaimed tax.

If you think your customer is a business, then don't charge them VAT. If you charge your French customer $5000 for a service under reverse charge and he doesn't declare this at all anywhere, this isn't your problem. He's a business, but a business doing tax evasion.

Also, note that, if a VAT number isn't provided to you, then you don't add them to your EC sales list. It's only for VAT registered businesses. Place of supply is France in my example. If the person is not VAT registered, then all they have to do is comply with the tax law by declaring that $5k, and having it added to their threshold for VAT registration. If they don't do that, they are tax evading. Their problem, again.

You will just file your company accounts and add the $5k(in GBP of course) to box 6 and 8 of your VAT return. If your company gets investigated by the HMRC, they would see the invoice to the French client. Great. What is the tax inspector going to do? Personally contact the French government to investigate that French client? Then if they do, somehow it's going to end up with the French tax authorities taking you to court with the assistance of the HMRC for classifying your French client as a business, when really he was just a consumer trying to avoid VAT? lol.


So here's the summary:-

If you are providing a digital product or service that is for businesses. You can just ask the person, either via email or on the checkout page "Are you a business or an individual?" If you're selling SEO services, you can safely assume someone's a business if they tell you. Why is a consumer going to buy SEO services? If you're selling any sort of product that's business related, this is fine.

If on the other hand you are selling t-shirts, then you cannot do this. 99.99% of your customers will be individuals who would say they are a business to avoid tax, and if you get huge and are selling 10's of millions worth of t-shirts, then you might, at some point, find yourself in trouble with the EU, but even then, I doubt it. They aren't a central organisation with any man-power to enforce their laws. Each member state would have to come after you individually. It's just not going to happen unless you are in the BILLIONS and are creating massive attention.

But, I personally wouldn't do it for a business that's selling products like t-shirts. It's a bit dodgy and I prefer to stay above board myself.





The invoice is indeed US and their head office is in USA, which is where they were founded.

In this case, you're providing services to a non-EU entity, so it's outside the scope of VAT. But the above will help you in cases where it's an EU company. The biggest problem arises when you and the company you invoice are in the same country and you are VAT registered. You will need to charge them VAT and issue a VAT invoice for them to reclaim.


God damn it. I'm in that situation. Do I need to contact ClickBank and demand they pay me an extra £20k for the VAT HMRC has charged me or what? Would that even work?!

Why are the HMRC saying you owe £20k VAT from ClickBank payments?

They are owned by Click Sale Inc. A US corporation.

Payments from them are outside the scope of UK VAT. Your only requirement as a VAT registered business is to add the ClickBank sales to Box 6 of your VAT return.
 
Most people don't really under VAT, especially cross-border VAT. I'll answer the questions here and also explain how it works and link to relevant legislation or government guidelines where appropriate.




It helps if you specify the country you are in btw.

For this it's simple. Who pays you? The affiliate network/company. What company/address have they told you to invoice them to.

For their part, they actually need nothing from you in this case.

An affiliate payment is by very definition ONLY b2b. It is NOT a consumer purchase, because you have done business to get paid.

They don't even need your VAT number. Everything is on you.

The revere charge mechanism applies. This means 1 of 2 things. (You said you're VAT registered, so 1 applies to you)

1) You are VAT registered, so you charge yourself VAT and claim it back at the same time. You're charging output VAT to yourself, and claiming back input VAT. It's zero-rated. Nothing to pay. You're only recording on your VAT return, which is going to be adding to the box for vat-able sales and adding to the box for vat-able purchases at your country's main rate.

2) You are NOT VAT registered. So you do nothing. Nada. Place of supply rules. You are a business, but not VAT registered, which means you are responsible for dealing with the VAT in your country. However, you are not VAT registered, so you cannot charge anyone VAT, including yourself.

BUT, here's the big but. This increases your sales for the VAT registration threshold!

Also worth noting, and most don't realise this. EVERY service you purchase online from a non-EU country needs to be accounted for under reverse charge and it goes towards your VAT registration threshold.

This means, if you buy some SEO services from Jim over in NYC from his LLC registered in Delaware for $5000, then you account for this in your company books as VAT-able at 20% under the reverse charge expenses mechanism. Ie, it either increases your sales towards the threshold by $5k, because you are selling the service to yourself for $5k, paying VAT, and claiming back VAT at the same time.




Yes, B2C, but that's impossible with affiliate marketing. By very definition you are acting as a business.



Charge you VAT for what? They're paying you. You aren't paying them.




No this is wrong. You don't have to charge VAT to them. This is where the mis-understanding comes in from many.

Please see the following document:

https://ec.europa.eu/taxation_custo...t_works/telecom/explanatory_notes_2015_en.pdf

Section 5: STATUS OF CUSTOMER NOT COMMUNICATING HIS VAT IDENTIFICATION NUMBER (ARTICLE 18)

This is what it says: It says that it's at the supplier's discretion to regard the customer as a business if they don't provide a VAT number. This means that if they do provide one, the supplier MUST consider them a business, however, if they do not, the supplier can STILL at his or her discretion consider them a business.

First, definition of taxable person according to ec.europa.eu

The definition of a taxable person in the VAT Directive is any person or body “who, independently, carries out in any place any economic activity, whatever the purpose or results”.

It's not defined as someone who is VAT registered, or who pays VAT. There are businesses that don't have VAT numbers, because they only make VAT exempt supplies.


Now let's look at what the explanatory notes of the VAT implementation regulation states.

"Paragraph 1 tells the supplier when he can regard an EU customer as a taxable person. That is the case when the customer communicates his VAT identification number, or shows that he is in the process of registering for VAT."

You can absolutely without recourse consider the person(in law a person means either an individual or company) taxable, provided you have verified their VAT number with VIES and have given your own VAT number so you can receive a consultation number back, which is your proof you did the check.

Then it goes on to say

"Where no VAT identification number has been communicated, the first subparagraph of paragraph 2 tells the supplier that the customer can be regarded as a non-taxable person but only if there is no information to the contrary."

So, you can consider them non-taxable, ie, not a business, BUT ONLY IF there is no information to the contrary that shows they are a business.

Then it goes on to say

"Article 18 helps the supplier to identify the status of the customer but the provision does not change it. It is important to remember that any person who independently carries out in any place any economic activity, whatever the purpose or results of that activity, must be regarded as a taxable person. To be a taxable person, registration is not required. In other words the fact that a taxable person does not have a VAT identification number does not change his status."


Aha. This is from the ACTUAL EU VAT legislation.


Here's an example of a company who do this in practice. No other than Google.

When you sign up for Google Suite and say you are a business customer, then they will NOT charge you VAT. They will send you an invoice with 0% VAT being added and a note saying "Services subject to the reverse charge - VAT to be accounted for by the recipient as per Article 196 of Council Directive 2006/112/EC"

See: https://support.google.com/a/answer/1231283?hl=en

They state it here too and say you are responsible for self-assessing your own VAT and paying yourself in your own local member state.


This all seems simple enough, right? Why aren't every company doing this?

Because the liability lies with the supplier if the customer doesn't provide a VAT number or proof of a pending registration.

There's various things here beyond tax too, like, different rights for consumers than businesses. Some companies won't sell to consumers.

If you accept customer X is a business, send him a reverse charge invoice and he turns out to be a consumer, then you're liable.

But come on. Let's get real. Let's look at case law. Can someone find me a single case where the EU has taken anyone to court over VAT? No. I can't even find any cases of tax authorities in member states going after businesses in other member states for unclaimed tax.

If you think your customer is a business, then don't charge them VAT. If you charge your French customer $5000 for a service under reverse charge and he doesn't declare this at all anywhere, this isn't your problem. He's a business, but a business doing tax evasion.

Also, note that, if a VAT number isn't provided to you, then you don't add them to your EC sales list. It's only for VAT registered businesses. Place of supply is France in my example. If the person is not VAT registered, then all they have to do is comply with the tax law by declaring that $5k, and having it added to their threshold for VAT registration. If they don't do that, they are tax evading. Their problem, again.

You will just file your company accounts and add the $5k(in GBP of course) to box 6 and 8 of your VAT return. If your company gets investigated by the HMRC, they would see the invoice to the French client. Great. What is the tax inspector going to do? Personally contact the French government to investigate that French client? Then if they do, somehow it's going to end up with the French tax authorities taking you to court with the assistance of the HMRC for classifying your French client as a business, when really he was just a consumer trying to avoid VAT? lol.


So here's the summary:-

If you are providing a digital product or service that is for businesses. You can just ask the person, either via email or on the checkout page "Are you a business or an individual?" If you're selling SEO services, you can safely assume someone's a business if they tell you. Why is a consumer going to buy SEO services? If you're selling any sort of product that's business related, this is fine.

If on the other hand you are selling t-shirts, then you cannot do this. 99.99% of your customers will be individuals who would say they are a business to avoid tax, and if you get huge and are selling 10's of millions worth of t-shirts, then you might, at some point, find yourself in trouble with the EU, but even then, I doubt it. They aren't a central organisation with any man-power to enforce their laws. Each member state would have to come after you individually. It's just not going to happen unless you are in the BILLIONS and are creating massive attention.

But, I personally wouldn't do it for a business that's selling products like t-shirts. It's a bit dodgy and I prefer to stay above board myself.







In this case, you're providing services to a non-EU entity, so it's outside the scope of VAT. But the above will help you in cases where it's an EU company. The biggest problem arises when you and the company you invoice are in the same country and you are VAT registered. You will need to charge them VAT and issue a VAT invoice for them to reclaim.




Why are the HMRC saying you owe £20k VAT from ClickBank payments?

They are owned by Click Sale Inc. A US corporation.

Payments from them are outside the scope of UK VAT. Your only requirement as a VAT registered business is to add the ClickBank sales to Box 6 of your VAT return.

Welp, I paid it anyways... and then I asked my accountant to double check, and once we established that they were in the US, I got a nice heft refund from HMRC :)
 
Welp, I paid it anyways... and then I asked my accountant to double check, and once we established that they were in the US, I got a nice heft refund from HMRC :)

Hehe, yes your post was a few months old. Glad you got it sorted!
 
VAT rules for affiliate marketing is absolutely ridicolous and I really need some guidance on this.

I'm based in the EU, working as an affiliate for a company that is based in the US, but seems to have offices all over Europe. The clients I refer are mainly from Europe.

The law regarding VAT for affiliates stipulates that I should pay NO value added tax if the company that benefits from my sales is located outside of Europe. However, since said company has offices/hqs all over the EU I'm wondering how this will affect things, if at all.

Thanks so much in advance, I can't find an answer for this anywhere.
Which company do u work for? if u work for a sister company that is eu based then yes , but EU law does NEVER apply outside the EU
 
Hi guys.

Very interesting debate with some very informative replies :)

I am hoping somebody here may be able to give me some specific advice for my case ..

This financial year y/e April 2021 I've got a lot closer to the VAT threshold so I am thinking about my situation for the next financial year.

I am a registered sole trader in the UK running an affiliate business.

99% of my earnings come from one affiliate program which is a large VAT registered company based in the UK too.

I have spoken to them about VAT and they have confirmed that the commission I receive is VAT inclusive.

They said if I become VAT registered, I'll have to start issuing formal invoices to them on a quarterly basis so that they can reclaim the VAT paid on the commission paid to me but they said I would be liable to pay the HMRC the VAT element of the commission I have received (circa 16.67%).

So essentially, the VAT would come out of my current commission - the affiliate program will not pay any more on top.

I operate a cashback model affiliate business and my profit is circa 20% so if i have to start paying VAT on the commission then it essentially makes the business unviable.

Hoping somebody has some advice for me here - unless I have mis-read the situation, let's say I was based in any other EU country and I was issuing invoices to the UK affiliate program it would then be a cross-border transaction B2B, reverse-charge mechanism would apply and I would not be liable to actually pay any of the VAT myself.

Doesn't make sense that just because I am based in the same country as the affiliate program, I would have to pay VAT on my commission but if I was in another country, the affiliate program essentially covers it using the reverse charge.

Thanks in advance for any replies :)
 
Hi guys.

Very interesting debate with some very informative replies :)

I am hoping somebody here may be able to give me some specific advice for my case ..

This financial year y/e April 2021 I've got a lot closer to the VAT threshold so I am thinking about my situation for the next financial year.

I am a registered sole trader in the UK running an affiliate business.

99% of my earnings come from one affiliate program which is a large VAT registered company based in the UK too.

I have spoken to them about VAT and they have confirmed that the commission I receive is VAT inclusive.

They said if I become VAT registered, I'll have to start issuing formal invoices to them on a quarterly basis so that they can reclaim the VAT paid on the commission paid to me but they said I would be liable to pay the HMRC the VAT element of the commission I have received (circa 16.67%).

So essentially, the VAT would come out of my current commission - the affiliate program will not pay any more on top.

I operate a cashback model affiliate business and my profit is circa 20% so if i have to start paying VAT on the commission then it essentially makes the business unviable.

Hoping somebody has some advice for me here - unless I have mis-read the situation, let's say I was based in any other EU country and I was issuing invoices to the UK affiliate program it would then be a cross-border transaction B2B, reverse-charge mechanism would apply and I would not be liable to actually pay any of the VAT myself.

Doesn't make sense that just because I am based in the same country as the affiliate program, I would have to pay VAT on my commission but if I was in another country, the affiliate program essentially covers it using the reverse charge.

Thanks in advance for any replies :)

That doesn't really make sense what they're saying.

You cannot charge VAT because you are not registered for VAT. So your payment is not inclusive of VAT. It has no VAT on it. You are not charging them VAT.

What they're doing sounds borderline illegal.

They are paying a rate now, say £100, which to a non-VAT registered business is a payment of £100, and there's no VAT added because that business isn't VAT registered.

If you become VAT registered, then you have to charge them 20% VAT on the £100 payment. Then you pay £20 to the HMRC and they reclaim £20, thus paying you £80.

That makes NO sense.

You should charge them £120, £100 + £20 VAT after you are VAT registered. You send them a VAT invoice, and they reclaim that £20. They would not be out of pocket in any way. VAT is reclaimed each quarter.

That's like me hiring you as a web designer, and you say to me the job will be £1000 + VAT, and I say, no sorry, you need to pay the VAT out your £1000. How? That would make your job actually £833.33 and not £1000.

The problem is theirs. When you become VAT registered you have to charge VAT on your payment, and they can reclaim that VAT as a VAT registered company. They can't just reduce your payment AND claim back VAT!
 
VAT rules for affiliate marketing is absolutely ridicolous and I really need some guidance on this.

I'm based in the EU, working as an affiliate for a company that is based in the US, but seems to have offices all over Europe. The clients I refer are mainly from Europe.

The law regarding VAT for affiliates stipulates that I should pay NO value added tax if the company that benefits from my sales is located outside of Europe. However, since said company has offices/hqs all over the EU I'm wondering how this will affect things, if at all.

Thanks so much in advance, I can't find an answer for this anywhere.
Please share and discuss with a professional. Hope you will get the proper advice from them.
 
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