the proof of binomial coefficient
(x+y)^n = sum(k=0,n, nCk x^(n-k) y^k)
and we want to show that:
nCk = (n!)/(n-k)!k!
is true. So let's use induction on n.
Base case: n = 1. (x+y)^1 = x+y, so 1C0 = 1C1 = 1!/1!0! = 1!/0!1!.
Inductive step: suppose nCk = (n!)/(n-k)!k! for some n and all 0 ≤ k ≤ n. We'll show it's true for n+1 and all 0 ≤ k ≤ n+1. So
(x+y)^(n+1) = (x+y)(x+y)^n = (x+y)sum(k=0,n, nCk x^(n-k) y^k)
So multiply through and note that the coefficient on x^(n+1-k) y^k is:
for k = 0: 1 = (n+1)!/(n+1)!0!
for k = n+1: 1 = (n+1)!/0!(n+1)!
for 1 ≤ k ≤ n: nCk + nC(k-1)
So we want to show that nCk + nC(k-1) = (n+1)!/(n+1-k)!k!. So:
n!/(n-k!)k! + n!/(n+1-k)!(k-1)! = [n!(n+1-k)+n!k]/(n+1-k)!k! = n!(n+1)/(n+1-k)!k! = (n+1)!/(n+1-k)!k!
2+2=?+google